Q: Is the linguistic disposition of secular change a truly evident motion in the universe?
A: Well, my first answer would be, "That's a bunch of non-sense" but, with friendly intent to derive any particulates of semi-valid meaning at all from that question in my limited understanding of the mathematics and physics that would explain motion in the universe with any evidence, I would say, relatively speaking of course, most people on Earth by nature, due to ignorance, are oblivious as to how the universe works while under the veil of our limited vision and understanding. Now assuming the secular change or variation you are referring to might be in accordance with science and a secular perception it would be very difficult to determine if the variation was measurable due to it actually being secular or just periodic because of the lack of a beginning and ending reference point in the question itself. Generally among populous here on Earth, people have a hard time expressing themselves factually in a society still riddled with superstition, magic, and fringe subjects because the basis upon which they are to compare or cross-validate can be changing and untrue at the foundation of their perception. I suppose my answer is more likely no than yes but, what do I know? Answering with a question is always a better option in my opinion.